That would be the 38% globally, or 65% in the case of China.Biffer wrote: Fri Mar 24, 2023 12:07 pmSo what is this industrial use then? Where does that get ascribed to individual consumers?Ymx wrote: Fri Mar 24, 2023 11:56 amI agree and haven’t said otherwise.Biffer wrote: Fri Mar 24, 2023 11:51 am
The industrial use ultimately has an end consumer that is an individual. Even goods and services produced for companies should end up allocated against the consumer at the end of the chain. I can't think of a single example where that's not the case.
As for allocation of that, I was wondering if these numbers might be used as a proxy for that split.
https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/NE.EXP.GNFS.ZS
So in Chinas case 20% of their gross domestic product is exported.
Private consumption 35%
Industrial and internal consumption 52%
Industrial and exported 13%
China 87% of what they burn, they use.
Plus any extra of what they import (luxury goods)
So a fuckload. Although that 20% assumes a fixed ratio of energy used to price of good or service, and possibly other factors.